And also, why would only a first name be listed for a mother? I see this
all the time while perusing the IGI.

I too have noticed that at times the mother's surname is not listed
on one christening record and is written on others. However, with the
records I've researched, when the surname is not ever mentioned, she
probably was Indian. The father's surname is often not mentioned either if
he was Indian, especially in the 1700s.

~Deena Ortiz~

Hello. During my research, I once found a record of an illegitimate 
child just by chance. I was checking the baptisms in Atotonilco el 
bajo/santa clara, Jalisco of children with the last name Cervantes. 
Most of them were not related to me, but I found a girl whose last 
name was Cervantes. she was the illegitimate daughter of a woman with 
the last name Hernandez and of my greatgrandfather's brother Bacilio 
Apodaca. However, she was not named neither Apodaca or Hernandez. 
Why? Because in the record it showed that this child was not claimed 
by the father, but by the paternal grandmother, Guadalupe Cervantes. 
So, in this case, the child inherited the paternal's grandmother's 
maiden surname. 

I believe there's not a standard about naming illegitimate children, 
since my second great grandfather Evaristo Ramirez kept the last name 
of his father, even though he was a natural child.

--- In ranchos@yahoogroups.com, "alice_wissing" <alice_wissing@y...> 
wrote:
> While looking at the International Genealogical Index I came across 
> an ancestor possibly having a child with a woman other than his 
wife 
> during the late 1700's.  The child carried the father's last name 
> only (no mother's name attached at the end)and only the mother's 
> first name was listed.  I was under the impression an illegitimate 
> child never used his father's last name, so this confused me.
> 
> I've ordered a copy of the entry from the History Center, but it 
> will take weeks for me to receive it.  In the meantime, does anyone 
> know if there were strict standards regarding an illegitimate 
> child's use of a father's last name?  And also, why would only a  
> first name be listed for a mother?  I see this all the time while 
> perusing the IGI.  
> 
> Thanks,
> 
> Alicia

While looking at the International Genealogical Index I came across 
an ancestor possibly having a child with a woman other than his wife 
during the late 1700's.  The child carried the father's last name 
only (no mother's name attached at the end)and only the mother's 
first name was listed.  I was under the impression an illegitimate 
child never used his father's last name, so this confused me.

I've ordered a copy of the entry from the History Center, but it 
will take weeks for me to receive it.  In the meantime, does anyone 
know if there were strict standards regarding an illegitimate 
child's use of a father's last name?  And also, why would only a  
first name be listed for a mother?  I see this all the time while 
perusing the IGI.  

Thanks,

Alicia

looks like there is lots of good stuff here:

http://www.tarver-genealogy.net/index2.html
http://www.tarver-genealogy.net/aids/spanish/sp_naming_conv.html#nicknames