While looking at the International Genealogical Index I came across 
an ancestor possibly having a child with a woman other than his wife 
during the late 1700's.  The child carried the father's last name 
only (no mother's name attached at the end)and only the mother's 
first name was listed.  I was under the impression an illegitimate 
child never used his father's last name, so this confused me.

I've ordered a copy of the entry from the History Center, but it 
will take weeks for me to receive it.  In the meantime, does anyone 
know if there were strict standards regarding an illegitimate 
child's use of a father's last name?  And also, why would only a  
first name be listed for a mother?  I see this all the time while 
perusing the IGI.  

Thanks,

Alicia