Published by Nuestros_Ranchos –

Hector : I too have seen the examples that you
give.  I was asking Angie where she read, "but couldn't remember where" she
may have read about that the husband would change his name to his wife's. It
seems logical the way she explained it, I just don't remember seeing it. 
When a woman comes in to have the child baptised and she uses her own last name
because the the child was "hijo Natural de".  Is it possible that that is
the case when I see "hijo legalmente de Juan Iniguiz and luisa Iniguiz" ? 
Angie brought a very good point and I guess that they could do anything they
wanted when the child was born. It is just that I haven't seen a case
where it was done.  If a grandfather was of a higher cast, I
wonder if they would not be hesitant to have the  son-in-law
take their surname.  By what right?  A surname was very
important then and not to be tifled with.  Amoung the lower classes it
didn't matter I must guess, if at all.  I found Angies comments and others
really enlightening. I thank Angie for telling us that.  I just have't seen
the example that she gave. 

 

Jose Macias


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----- Original Message -----


style="BACKGROUND: #e4e4e4; FONT: 10pt arial; font-color: black">From:
Arnoldo
Garcia


Sent: Tuesday, July 01, 2003 1:13
PM

Subject: Re: [ranchos] Re: Naming
Patterns



Hello,  I see a lot of explanations for this " naming
pattern".  I know in some cases that I have personally seen,

i.e. A. father does'nt marry the mother - the son/daughter will
decide to carry the mothers name. 

     B. father abandons mother and
family - children decide to carry mothers name instead
of fathers.

     C. father committs a crime - Family decides
to carry mothers name instead, to avoid stigma in society

     D. father has mulitiple children out
of wedlock - mother and/or children decide to carry maternal name.

     E. even if father comes back to claim children,
mother and or children will not permit name change, back or to fathers name.

     F. Might not be fathers fault at all

     G. Maybe influential parents, Grandparents
registered the child with out the fathers permission in the maternal name and
not the parental, for what ever the reason might be.

     H. I know of one instance that the maternal
parents only had one daughter, and no sons, so that the maternal name woul go
on, the father agreed to have one son's name be that of the mothers, so the
maternal name could go on. the father having many brothers and his parents
name would go on.

Just some general comments.

Arnoldo Garcia

     

         

Jose
Macias <usa20@...> wrote:


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Angie;  Though I can see the logic of what
you say you may have read, I have never seen this to be the case in taking
the surname of the wife. 

  As you know, the child of Hector Garcia
and Rosa Mendez would be for example Carlita Garcia Mendez.  I have
never seen a man change his name to Hector Mendez.  It is not true in
Mexico, Central America or  South America, is it true maybe in Spain or
Portugal ?  A family name is very important and I have never seen a
case where a man would change his surname to that of his wife's
father.  I wonder where you read this ? Traditionally the woman keeps
her maiden name in that way even after marriage. 

  I know about the variations in the
spelling of names. I have seen some very strange attempts to spell
Indian names by phonetics.

  Anyway, I found your entry very
enlightening and will remember to keep it in mind as I look over the records
from now on.  If you will tell me where you have seen this practice, it
would help me very much.

 

Jose L. Macias



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----- Original Message -----


style="BACKGROUND: #e4e4e4; FONT: 10pt arial; font-color: black">From:
href="mailto:aajay1073@...">aajay1073


Sent: Monday, June 30, 2003 3:12
PM

Subject: [ranchos] Re: Naming
Patterns


I read somewhere, {and I can't remember where, but I
tried looking
for my source for this information}, that if the wife's
family was of
a higher status or surname was 'better' {in using
measurements during
that time period}, then the males in the family
took the wife's
surname which would then pass to their children. 
And the females
took the husband's surname which would get passed to
their children
as the secondary surname.

In terms of
mispellings or spelling variations.  Again, I read
somewhere, the
person recording the name tended to be more educated
then the general
people. Therefore, it would have been 'beneath' him
to ask how to
spell a name to someone who was less educated them he. 
The
ability to read and write was not wide spread, but more than
likely
even those people who did know how to write, were probably
still not
asked the correct way to spell their name.

just me two
cents...

Angie




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